Question of the Week #158

A 2-year-old child with clear rhinorrhea and a resolving 1 week history of cough presents for inguinal hernia repair. The child has no history of recent fever, malaise, or wheezing. Which of the following treatments, in conjunction with the use of a supraglottic airway (SGA), is MOST LIKELY to reduce the risk of a perioperative respiratory adverse event?

A. Topical lidocaine administered to the vocal cords after induction of anesthesia

B. Preoperative administration of inhaled albuterol

C. Intravenous glycopyrrolate administered with induction of anesthesia

D. Topical oxymetazoline nasal spray administered preoperatively

Correct! Wrong!

Question of the Week #158