Question of the Week #323
October 29, 2026
During an inhalational induction, a previously healthy 7-year-old boy develops an abnormal rhythm as shown on the telemetry strip. Vital signs are HR 220 BPM, RR 23, SpO2 89% on 100% oxygen and non-invasive BP 60/35 mmHg. There is no intravenous (IV) access. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate intervention?
Correct!
Wrong!
Question of the Week #323
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